Perhaps this sounds like an ambitious thing to tackle in a blog post, however, someone asked some good questions over twitter recently, and although I tried to answer her question, I'm not sure I was doing well over twitter. So, I'm going to give a more full answer here, where I have more space. The question was, basically, "Are we supposed to get baptized in Jesus name only, or in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Spirit?" The question was raised because of a perceived conflict between two verses. The two verses are as follows:
Matt 28:19 Go therefore and make disciples of all nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, (ESV)
Act 2:38 And Peter said to them, "Repent and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the forgiveness of your sins, and you will receive the gift of the Holy Spirit. (Also ESV)
There are two ways to approach this question. First, does it matter how we are baptized? Second, how do we know what to do with two verses that seem to contradict each other because of differing amounts of detail?
One of the answers to the question of how to be baptized was to point the questioner to a CARM page on baptism, which has a link to an explanation of what that verse has to do with baptism (http://carm.org/baptism-and-acts-238)
That web page has an in depth, technical explanation of the Greek in Act 2:38. However, I'm guessing that most people asking the question about which verse to follow aren't interested in a technical explanation of the Greek grammar behind one of those verses. If you skip that explanation, it also has a good explanation of the idea that salvation does not come because of getting baptized. So, it really doesn't matter (much) how you get baptized, because that's not what gets you saved anyway. I'm not saying it isn't important to do what God's word says. The idea of obedience is good, certainly. The biggest issue, though, is that a person is acting from right motives. So, if a person is honestly trying to do what is right, then that's what counts. If they are in a group that believes in Jesus only baptisms, and so they believe they should be baptized in the name of Jesus only because they don't realize that the Bible has anything else to say on the subject, God isn't going to punish that person for having acted out of a good conscience and for not having been baptized the "right" way. This goes for any other question regarding baptism, too. If you are in a group that practices dunking, sprinkling, immersion, whatever, it isn't the most important question. If you were baptized in any of those groups (regardless of what is "correct" in an objective sense), that's fine. If you did it as the answer of a good conscience towards God to make a public confession of faith towards God, you did it with right motives. That's what counts. That said, if your conscience is bothering you, by all means, do it again! If you've decided that the group who originally baptized you didn't have everything right and so you are concerned that it "didn't take" or something along those lines, go do it again. The Bible is pretty clear about maintaining a good conscience (see 1 John 3:19-23 or so). Also, if those around you don't believe that the way you did it in the past was valid, for their sakes, do it again.
The second question is the more important question. How do we know what to do regarding two verses that seem to contradict each other by giving differing amounts of information? First of all, this pair of verses (Matt 28:19 and Acts 2:38) don't contradict each other. If you are baptized in the name of the son of God, then you are baptized in the name of Jesus. The two things mean the same. If you are baptized in the name of the father and of the holy spirit, you are still being baptized "in the name of" God, which means you are doing it because he (God) commanded it. You are acting as his agent. Because God is one God, whether you do something in the name of Jesus, or in the name of the Father, or the Son or the Holy Spirit, it is all being done in the name of God. Now, if someone doesn't believe in the doctrine of the Trinity, then that's an issue, because there are a LOT of scriptures which substantiate that doctrine. If someone says, though, there is a difference in meaning because the one tells me to be baptized in three names and the other says only to be baptized in one name, that person needs to consider this:
If I go to a party and am telling everyone about a car accident that was really shocking that I witnessed on the way to the party, I might give a LOT of details to the first person I tell about it. I might be still trying to deal with what I saw and I need to just have a shoulder to cry on, so to speak. But if someone else comes over and asks what we are talking about, I'm probably not going to go into as much detail. If yet a third person comes over and asks what we are talking about, I might shorten my recap to just a few words. "Oh, I was talking about an accident I saw." Done. End of story. Say no more. Does it mean that I'm "changing my story?" Is there a contradiction present between my various retellings of what happened? Not at all. These changes are completely natural.
If I'm trying to find a job and so I apply to multiple potential employers, the job descriptions might vary quite a bit. If they each require three completely different skill sets, I might tailor my resume to match each of those three requirements. If I leave out my computer programming experience while applying for a sales job, it doesn't mean I haven't ever worked as a computer programmer. It just means I've changed the focus of my resume to match the needs of my audience.
We often see instances in the Bible of the same circumstances being recounted by multiple witnesses. Jesus life is retold once in each of the four Gospels and each one is different. What to do? If you get more detail from one account than from another, you have to believe the one with more details. 2Ti 3:16 states that, "All scripture [is] given by inspiration of God, and [is] profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" So, you can't just toss out the longer verses because they seem to disagree with the shorter verses.
What do you think? Am I missing anything in my explanation of what to do with those two verses? Is my focus or set of priorities wrong? Can you give me any suggestions for improvements in my reasoning or my examples? Or, if this has been really helpful to you and you just think this is the most wonderful blog post you've ever read, either way, let me know! I love to get comments. Thanks in advance and God bless you!
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